The Catholic Church teaches celibacy for it's priesthood and pope. They claim (falsely) that the apostle Peter was the 1st "pope". But if that is true of Peter (which it isn't) then why did Peter have a wife? Kind of undermines Catholic teaching on celibacy for the priesthood & papacy doesn't it?
1) If Peter was the first "pope", .... he was married.
2) Or Peter wasn't the 1st "pope".
And when Jesus was come into Peter's house, he saw his wife's mother laid, and sick of a fever.
Matthew 18:14
Have we not the right also to take along with us a Christian sister as wife, as do the other apostles and the Lord’s brothers and Cephas (Peter)?
1 Corinthians 9:5
1) If Peter was the first "pope", .... he was married.
2) Or Peter wasn't the 1st "pope".
And when Jesus was come into Peter's house, he saw his wife's mother laid, and sick of a fever.
Matthew 18:14
Have we not the right also to take along with us a Christian sister as wife, as do the other apostles and the Lord’s brothers and Cephas (Peter)?
1 Corinthians 9:5